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lectures/likelihood_bayes.md

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@@ -682,7 +682,7 @@ Evidently, by $t = 199$, $\pi_t$ has converged to either $0$ or $1$.
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The fraction of paths that have converged to $1$ is $.5$
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The fractions of paths that have converged to $0$ is also $.5.
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The fractions of paths that have converged to $0$ is also $.5$.
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Does the fraction $.5$ ring a bell?
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